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NEW QUESTION # 49 
A company has added a new user group. Users in the group try to connect to the WLAN and receive errors that the connection has no Internet access. The users cannot reach any resources. The first exhibit shows the record for one of the users who cannot connect. The second exhibit shows the role to which the ArubaOS device assigned the user's client.
What is a likely problem?
- A. The role name that CPPM is sending does not match the role name configured on the Aru-baOS device.
- B. The clients rejected the server authentication on their side because they do not have the root CA for CPPM's RADIUS/EAP certificate.
- C. The ArubaOS device does not have the correct RADIUS dictionaries installed on it to under-stand the Aruba-User-Role VSA.
- D. The ArubaOS device has a server derivation rule configured on it that has overridden the role sent by CPPM.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The image indicates that there is an issue with the user role assignment, which is key to network access in ArubaOS. If the user role name sent by CPPM doesn't match any of the roles defined in the ArubaOS, then the user will be assigned a default or incorrect role that does not have the necessary permissions, thus leading to the connection errors and lack of Internet access. Ensuring that the role names are consistent between CPPM and ArubaOS can resolve this issue.
NEW QUESTION # 50
You are troubleshooting an authentication issue for Aruba switches that enforce 802 IX10 a cluster of Aruba ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPMs) You know that CPPM Is receiving and processing the authentication requests because the Aruba switches are showing Access-Rejects in their statistics However, you cannot find the record tor the Access-Rejects in CPPM Access Tracker What is something you can do to look for the records?
- A. Click Edit in Access viewer and make sure that the correct servers are selected.
- B. Verify that you are logged in to the CPPM Ul with read-write, not read-only, access
- C. Make sure that CPPM cluster settings are configured to show Access-Rejects
- D. Go to the CPPM Event Viewer, because this is where RADIUS Access Rejects are stored.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 51
What is a vulnerability of an unauthenticated Dime-Heliman exchange?
- A. Diffie-Hellman with elliptic curve values is no longer considered secure in modem networks, based on NIST recommendations.
- B. Participants must agree on a passphrase in advance, which can limit the usefulness of Diffie- Hell man in practical contexts.
- C. A brute force attack can relatively quickly derive Diffie-Hellman private values if they are able to obtain public values
- D. A hacker can replace the public values exchanged by the legitimate peers and launch an MITM attack.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 52
You need to deploy an Aruba instant AP where users can physically reach It. What are two recommended options for enhancing security for management access to the AP? (Select two )
- A. Disable the Web Ul.
- B. install a CA-signed certificate
- C. Place a Tamper Evident Label (TELS) over its console port
- D. Configure WPA3-Enterpnse security on the AP
- E. Disable Its console ports
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
When deploying an Aruba Instant AP in a location where users can physically access it, enhancing security for management access could involve several measures: C. Disabling the Web UI will prevent unauthorized access via the browser-based management interface, which could be a security risk if the AP is within physical reach of untrusted parties. E. Installing a CA-signed certificate helps ensure that any communication with the AP's management interface is encrypted and authenticated, preventing man-in-the-middle attacks and eavesdropping.
NEW QUESTION # 53
What purpose does an initialization vector (IV) serve for encryption?
- A. It helps parties to negotiate the keys and algorithms used to secure data before data transmission.
- B. It enables the conversion of asymmetric keys into keys that are suitable for symmetric encryption.
- C. It enables programs to convert easily-remembered passphrases to keys of a correct length.
- D. It makes encryption algorithms more secure by ensuring that same plaintext and key can produce different ciphertext.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The primary purpose of an Initialization Vector (IV) in encryption is to ensure that the same plaintext encrypted with the same encryption key will produce different ciphertext each time it is encrypted. This variability is crucial for securing repetitive data patterns and preventing certain types of cryptographic attacks, such as replay or pattern analysis attacks. The IV adds randomness to the encryption process, making it more secure by ensuring that encrypted messages are unique, even if the plaintext and key remain unchanged. This prevents attackers from deducing patterns or inferring any useful information from repeated ciphertext.
NEW QUESTION # 54
You have an Aruba Mobility Controller (MC). for which you are already using Aruba ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) to authenticate access to the Web Ul with usernames and passwords You now want to enable managers to use certificates to log in to the Web Ul CPPM will continue to act as the external server to check the names in managers' certificates and tell the MC the managers' correct rote in addition to enabling certificate authentication. what is a step that you should complete on the MC?
- A. Create a local admin account mat uses certificates in the account, specify the correct trusted CA certificate and external authentication
- B. install all of the managers' certificates on the MC as OCSP Responder certificates
- C. Verify that the MC trusts CPPM's HTTPS certificate by uploading a trusted CA certificate Also, configure a CPPM username and password on the MC
- D. Verify that the MC has the correct certificates, and add RadSec to the RADIUS server configuration for CPPM
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 55
What is one way a noneypot can be used to launch a man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack to wireless clients?
- A. it uses a combination or software and hardware to jam the RF band and prevent the client from connecting to any wireless networks
- B. it examines wireless clients' probes and broadcasts the SSlDs in the probes, so that wireless clients will connect to it automatically.
- C. it runs an NMap scan on the wireless client to And the clients MAC and IP address. The hacker then connects to another network and spoofs those addresses.
- D. it uses ARP poisoning to disconnect wireless clients from the legitimate wireless network and force clients to connect to the hacker's wireless network instead.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 56
You have a network with ArubaOS-Switches for which Aruba ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) is acting as a TACACS+ server to authenticate managers. CPPM assigns the admins a TACACS+ privilege level, either manager or operator. You are now adding ArubaOS-CX switches to the network. ClearPass admins want to use the same CPPM service and policies to authenticate managers on the new switches.
What should you explain?
- A. This approach cannot work because the ArubaOS-CX switches do not accept standard TACACS+ privilege levels.
- B. This approach will work to assign admins to the default "administrators" group, but not to the default
"operators" group. - C. This approach cannot work because the ArubaOS-CX switches do not support TACACS+.
- D. This approach will work, but will need to be adjusted later if you want to assign managers to the default auditors group.
Answer: B
Explanation:
With ArubaOS-CX switches, the use of ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM) as a TACACS+ server for authentication is supported. The privilege levels assigned by CPPM will translate onto the switches, where the "manager" privilege level typically maps to administrative capabilities and the "operator" privilege level maps to more limited capabilities. ArubaOS-CX does support standard TACACS+ privilege levels, so administrators can be assigned appropriately. If the ClearPass policies are correctly configured, they will work for both ArubaOS-Switches and ArubaOS-CX switches. The distinction between the "administrators" and "operators" groups is inherent in the ArubaOS-CX role-based access control, and these default groups need to be appropriately mapped to the TACACS+ privilege levels assigned by CPPM.
NEW QUESTION # 57
What is a difference between radius and TACACS+?
- A. RADIUS encrypts the complete packet, white TACACS+ only offers partial encryption.
- B. RADIUS combines the authentication and authorization process while TACACS+ separates them.
- C. RADIUS uses Attribute Value Pairs (AVPs) in its messages, while TACACS+ does not use them.
- D. RADIUS uses TCP for Its connection protocol, while TACACS+ uses UDP tor its connection protocol.
Answer: B
Explanation:
RADIUS and TACACS+ are both protocols used for networking authentication, but they handle the processes of authentication and authorization differently. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) combines authentication and authorization into a single process, whereas TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus) separates these processes. This separation in TACACS+ allows more flexible policy enforcement and better control over commands a user can execute. This difference is well-documented in various network security resources, including Cisco's technical documentation and security protocol manuals.
NEW QUESTION # 58
A company has an ArubaOS solution. The company wants to prevent users assigned to the "user_group1" role from using gaming and peer-to-peer applications.
What is the recommended approach for these requirements?
- A. Create service aliases for the TCP ports associated with gaming and peer-to-per applications, and use those aliases in access control rules for the "user_group" rules.
- B. Add access control rules to the "user_group1" role, which deny HTTP/HTTPS traffic to IP addresses associated with gaming and peer-to-peer applications.
- C. Create ALGs for the gaming and peer-to-peer applications, and deny the "user_group1" role on the ALGs.
- D. Make sure DPI is enabled, and add application rules that deny gaming and peer-to-peer applications to the "user_groupr role.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The recommended approach for preventing users in the "user_group1" role from using gaming and peer-to-peer applications in an ArubaOS environment is to enable Deep Packet Inspection (DPI) and add application rules that specifically deny access to these types of applications for the role. DPI allows the network system to analyze the content of network traffic in real time and apply policies based on what it detects, including blocking specific applications like gaming and peer-to-peer sharing. This capability is essential for effectively managing application usage on the network and ensuring compliance with organizational policies. Application-specific rules provide precise control over the network traffic by identifying the application regardless of the network port used, making it a more effective method than blocking based on ports or IP addresses.
NEW QUESTION # 59
Refer to the exhibit.
How can you use the thumbprint?
- A. install this thumbprint on management stations the stations can then authenticate with the thumbprint instead of admins having to enter usernames and passwords.
- B. When you first connect to the switch with SSH from a management station, make sure that the thumbprint matches to ensure that a man-in-t he-mid die (MITM) attack is not occurring
- C. Install this thumbprint on management stations to use as two-factor authentication along with manager usernames and passwords, this will ensure managers connect from valid stations
- D. Copy the thumbprint to other Aruba switches to establish a consistent SSH Key for all switches this will enable managers to connect to the switches securely with less effort
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 60
What is one of the roles of the network access server (NAS) in the AAA framewonx?
- A. It determines which resources authenticated users are allowed to access and monitors each users session
- B. It negotiates with each user's device to determine which EAP method is used for authentication
- C. It enforces access to network services and sends accounting information to the AAA server
- D. It authenticates legitimate users and uses policies to determine which resources each user is allowed to access.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) framework, the role of the Network Access Server (NAS) is to act as a gateway that enforces access to network services and sends accounting information to the AAA server. The NAS initially requests authentication information from the user and then passes that information to the AAA server. It also enforces the access policies as provided by the AAA server after authentication and provides accounting data to the AAA server based on user activity.
References:
Technical literature on AAA protocols which often includes a description of the roles and responsibilities of a Network Access Server.
Network security resources that discuss the NAS function within the AAA framework.
NEW QUESTION # 61
Which correctly describes a way to deploy certificates to end-user devices?
- A. ClearPass OnGuard can help to deploy certificates to end-user devices, whether or not they are members of a Windows domain
- B. in a Windows domain, domain group policy objects (GPOs) can automatically install computer, but not user certificates
- C. ClearPass Device Insight can automatically discover end-user devices and deploy the proper certificates to them
- D. ClearPass Onboard can help to deploy certificates to end-user devices, whether or not they are members of a Windows domain
Answer: D
Explanation:
ClearPass Onboard is part of the Aruba ClearPass suite and it provides a mechanism to deploy certificates to end-user devices, regardless of whether or not they are members of a Windows domain. ClearPass Onboard facilitates the configuration and provisioning of network settings and security, including the delivery and installation of certificates to ensure secure network access. This capability enables a bring-your-own-device (BYOD) environment where devices can be securely managed and provided with the necessary certificates for network authentication.
NEW QUESTION # 62
Why might devices use a Diffie-Hellman exchange?
- A. to prove knowledge of a passphrase without transmitting the passphrase
- B. to signal that they want to use asymmetric encryption for future communications
- C. to agree on a shared secret in a secure manner over an insecure network
- D. to obtain a digital certificate signed by a trusted Certification Authority
Answer: C
Explanation:
Devices use the Diffie-Hellman exchange to agree on a shared secret in a secure manner over an insecure network. The main purpose of this cryptographic protocol is to enable two parties to establish a shared secret over an unsecured communication channel. This shared secret can then be used to encrypt subsequent communications using a symmetric key cipher. The Diffie-Hellman exchange is particularly valuable because it allows the secure exchange of cryptographic keys over a public channel without the need for a prior shared secret. This protocol is a foundational element for many secure communications protocols, including SSL/TLS, which is used to secure connections on the internet. References to the Diffie-Hellman protocol and its uses can be found in standard cryptographic textbooks and documentation such as those from the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) and security protocol specifications.
NEW QUESTION # 63
How should admins deal with vulnerabilities that they find in their systems?
- A. They should apply fixes, such as patches, to close the vulnerability before a hacker exploits it.
- B. They should notify the security team as soon as possible that the network has already been breached.
- C. They should classify the vulnerability as malware. a DoS attack or a phishing attack.
- D. They should add the vulnerability to their Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE).
Answer: A
Explanation:
When vulnerabilities are identified in systems, it is crucial for administrators to act immediately to mitigate the risk of exploitation by attackers. The appropriate response involves applying fixes, such as software patches or configuration changes, to close the vulnerability. This proactive approach is necessary to protect the integrity, confidentiality, and availability of the system resources and data. It's important to prioritize these actions based on the severity and exploitability of the vulnerability to ensure that the most critical issues are addressed first.References:
Best practices in system security management.
NEW QUESTION # 64
A company has an ArubaOS controller-based solution with a WPA3-Enterprise WLAN. which authenticates wireless clients to Aruba ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM). The company has decided to use digital certificates for authentication A user's Windows domain computer has had certificates installed on it However, the Networks and Connections window shows that authentication has tailed for the user. The Mobility Controllers (MC's) RADIUS events show that it is receiving Access-Rejects for the authentication attempt.
What is one place that you can you look for deeper insight into why this authentication attempt is failing?
- A. the packets captured on the MC control plane destined to UDP 1812
- B. the Alerts tab in the authentication record in CPPM Access Tracker
- C. the RADIUS events within the CPPM Event Viewer
- D. the reports generated by Aruba ClearPass Insight
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 65
What is social engineering?
- A. Hackers spoof the source IP address in their communications so they appear to be a legitimate user.
- B. Hackers intercept traffic between two users, eavesdrop on their messages, and pretend to be one or both users.
- C. Hackers use Artificial Intelligence (Al) to mimic a user's online behavior so they can infiltrate a network and launch an attack.
- D. Hackers use employees to circumvent network security and gather the information they need to launch an attack.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Social engineering in the context of network security refers to the techniques used by hackers to manipulate individuals into breaking normal security procedures and best practices to gain unauthorized access to systems, networks, or physical locations, or for financial gain. Hackers use various forms of deception to trick employees into handing over confidential or personal information that can be used for fraudulent purposes. This definition encompasses phishing attacks, pretexting, baiting, and other manipulative techniques designed to exploit human psychology. Unlike other hacking methods that rely on technical means, social engineering targets the human element of security. References to social engineering, its methods, and defense strategies are commonly found in security training manuals, cybersecurity awareness programs, and authoritative resources like those from the SANS Institute or cybersecurity agencies.
NEW QUESTION # 66 
What is another setting that you must configure on the switch to meet these requirements?
- A. Configure a CPPM username and password that match a CPPM admin account.
- B. Create port-access roles with the same names of the roles that CPPM will send in Aruba-Admin-Role VSAs.
- C. Set the aaa authentication login method for SSH to the "radius" server-group (with local as backup).
- D. Disable SSH on the default VRF and enable it on the mgmt VRF instead.
Answer: C
Explanation:
To meet the requirements for configuring an ArubaOS-CX switch for integration with ClearPass Policy Manager (CPPM), it is necessary to set the AAA authentication login method for SSH to use the "radius" server-group, with "local" as a backup. This ensures that when an admin attempts to SSH into the switch, the authentication request is first sent to CPPM via RADIUS. If CPPM is unavailable, the switch will fall back to using local authentication12.
Here's why the other options are not correct:
Option B is incorrect because configuring a CPPM username and password on the switch that matches a CPPM admin account is not required for SSH login; rather, the switch needs to be configured to communicate with CPPM for authentication.
Option C is incorrect because while CPPM will send Aruba-Admin-Role Vendor-Specific Attributes (VSAs), the switch does not need to have port-access roles created with the same names; it needs to interpret the VSA to assign the correct role.
Option D is incorrect because disabling SSH on the default VRF and enabling it on the mgmt VRF is not related to the authentication process with CPPM.
Therefore, the correct answer is A, as setting the AAA authentication login method for SSH to the "radius" server-group with "local" as backup is a key step in ensuring that the switch can authenticate admins through CPPM while providing a fallback method12.
NEW QUESTION # 67
An ArubaOS-CX switch enforces 802.1X on a port. No fan-through options or port-access roles are configured on the port The 802 1X supplicant on a connected client has not yet completed authentication Which type of traffic does the authenticator accept from the client?
- A. DHCP, DNS and RADIUS only
- B. RADIUS only
- C. EAP only
- D. DHCP, DNS, and EAP only
Answer: C
Explanation:
For an ArubaOS-CX switch enforcing 802.1X on a port without any fallback options or port-access roles configured, and where the supplicant on the connected client has not completed authentication, the only type of traffic the authenticator accepts from the client is EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol). EAP is a universal authentication framework used in 802.1X for message exchange during the authentication process.
The switch allows EAP packets because they are necessary for the client and the authentication server to perform the authentication process. This is standard behavior for 802.1X authenticators, which is to permit EAP traffic to pass through even before authentication is successful to facilitate the authentication exchange.
This information is supported by the IEEE 802.1X standard and ArubaOS-CX security configuration guides.
NEW QUESTION # 68
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